Oh dear you continue to completely missunderstand my argument. I will lay it out simply here.
Someone said Mohammad was a paedophile because he had sex with a nine year old.
Someone elsed raised the fair point that we can’t judge him by our modern standards and that his contempary westerners who were Christians had no issue with Mary being bethroved to Joseph at the age of 12.
I then argued that such an argument was invalid as Joseph can’t be considered a paedophile, as according to the story Christians believed, Mary had already given birth before he could have had sex with her as the story states it was a virgin birth. Thus she cannot have been prepubescant when they had sex. With Mohamads wife, on the otherhand, being only 9 she was almost certainly prepubescant.
I then used evidence that Roman historians, not long after the death of Jesus, looked down on paedophilia and also suggest Augustus, who was Emperor at the time of Jesus’ birth, did so also. Thus western civilisation had moral issues with paedophilia at least 600 years before Mohammad started sexual relations with a 9 year old.
You then entered the discussion saying you had no interest in educating yourself in the differences between pederasty and paedophilia which was a nuance of the argument, before calling me the idiot.
Now you’re refuting my argument that western civilisation dissaproved of paedophilia at least in 0 BC by citing sources from 1000 years earlier in a land a thousand or so miles from Italy . Possibly the biiggest non sequitur ever.
Please refer to my actual argument above before you continue with anymore nonsense.
Edit: I did use the phrase post pubescant which was wrong. Paedophilia is however the sexual interest i prepubescant children which is the reasoning that, given the lack of evidence to the contary, Mohamad did commit an act of paedophilia where as in the story of Jesus, Joseph cannot have done.